father-willis Posted October 21, 2010 Share Posted October 21, 2010 It's puzzled me for a while but can anyone give a rationale as to why in a III rk manual mixture a tierce might be present in the bass but then be dropped further up the compass? I know that it was a very common practice of Hill. His manual III rk mixtures may be 17, 19, 22 in the bass and continue so up to tenor F/G, I can't remember precisely. Then the tierce drops out and the whole becomes a quint mixture, why? F-W Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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